## Force in the Time region varies as the 4th power of distance

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jdalton4
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### Force in the Time region varies as the 4th power of distance

Larson states that force in the Time region varies as the 4th power of distance. This is giving me real trouble. Force in RS is t divided by s squared. Equivalent space in the time region is 1/t. If we substitute 1/t in the formula for force we get t cubed, not t to the fourth. Can somebody correct my math?

bperet
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### Can you cite reference?

Larson states that force in the Time region varies as the 4th power of distance.
I am assuming you are referring to "Solid Cohesion" in BPOM?
As we found in Chapter 12, Volume. I, the equivalent of distance s in the time region is s², and the gravitational force in this region therefore varies inversely as the fourth power of the distance rather than the square.
Equivalent space is a 2nd-power version of space projected from the time region. So when you are dealing with "distance" from a temporal rotation (which is not observable), you are actually dealing with "equivalent distance", s2, in the relationship. Larson's equation 1-4 is his version of F = G (m1m2)/r2, where the radial distance, r, would be in units of space for an aggregate--and in equivalent space, s2, for a time region effect. So r2 = (s2)2 = s4.

Also, the reference is in Chapter 13, p. 169, not Chapter 12.
Every dogma has its day...

jdalton4
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### Nehru's article on Ferromagnetism

I was reading Nehru's article on Ferromagnetism A Co-magnetic Phenomenon. Its his first footnote in that article.

jdalton4
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### Nehru's article on ferromagnetism

I am sorry. I should have said Nehru's fourth footnote in his article on Ferromagnetism quotes Larson saying that forc varies as the fourth power of distance in the Time region.

bperet
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### Interatomic distance

I was reading Nehru's article on Ferromagnetism A Co-magnetic Phenomenon. Its his first footnote in that article.
The actual source is Basic Properties of Matter, bottom of page 7.

(I edited the above comment with details.)
Every dogma has its day...

jdalton4
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Joined: Thu Dec 12, 2013 4:46 am

### Very confusing

I am still confused. I thought velocity in the Time Region was a second power expression of velocity in the Time Space Region. But you are saying equivalent space is a second power version of space "projected from the time region". How can both these statements be true? I apologize for my ignorance and i appreciate your time to correct my thinking.

bperet
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### I am still confused. I

I am still confused. I thought velocity in the Time Region was a second power expression of velocity in the Time Space Region.
Yes, Larson is confusing. His lack of diagrams make it very difficult to understand a lot of the concepts.

In the time region, motion is in time, only. Space is fixed at a unity. Speed is s/t. But you cannot have "s" in the time region, so he substitutes 1/t for s in the speed equation, resulting in s/t = (1/t)/t = 1/t2, the time region speed--as measured inside the time region. We cannot observe or measure time directly, only spatial relationships, so we only see that 2nd-power temporal relation indirectly in atomic properties and behavior.
But you are saying equivalent space is a second power version of space "projected from the time region". How can both these statements be true?
Larson is not very clear on equivalent space. Nehru does a much better job in his papers, particularly the one on sunspots where he uses equivalent space to explain a new form of magnetism--thermal motion (a speed) in the 2nd-power equivalent space becomes a magnetic motion.

Essentially, equivalent space is the observable and measureable effect that motion in time has upon spatial relationships. All of the force field effects, like electric charge, magnetism and gravity, are in equivalent space because they are an effect of motion in time, the "shadow on the wall" of Plato's cave. We cannot see the actual, temporal motions involved.

Just as when entering the time region, you had to replace s with 1/t to get 1/t2, coming back out you have to do the same thing, and replace t with 1/s, so you get 1/(1/s)2 = s2-- the 2nd power relation of equivalent space.
I apologize for my ignorance and i appreciate your time to correct my thinking.
Not a problem... I remember the difficulties when I started learning the RS!
Every dogma has its day...

jdalton4
Posts: 34
Joined: Thu Dec 12, 2013 4:46 am

### That really helps.

Thank you so much for that. It really helps.